Course Content
Krok 1 Paper with Explanation
About Lesson
Question From ( 51 To 100 )

51. A certain infectious agent can damage mucosa, cause inflammation of internal organs, sepsis, provoke formation of blue-green pus, and is quite resistant to most antibiotics. What pathogen is it? 

A. Streptococcus mutants

B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C. Escherichia coli

D. Staphylococcus aureus

E. Proteus vulgaris


Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Explanation

The pathogen described in the question is Pseudomonas aeruginosa, which is known for causing a range of infections in humans. It can damage mucosal tissues, lead to inflammation of internal organs, cause sepsis (a severe bloodstream infection), and produce blue-green pus due to the production of pigments.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is also known for its resistance to many antibiotics, making it a challenging pathogen to treat. It’s often associated with hospital-acquired infections and can affect individuals with weakened immune systems or those who have undergone invasive medical procedures

52. Nosocomial pneumonia was diagnosed in a 38-year-old inpatient. The doctor prescribed the patient a broad-spectrum antibiotic that is resistant to ß-lactamases, inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis in the bacterial membrane, and practically cannot be degraded by dehydropeptidase-1 in the renal tubules. What antibiotic did the patient receive? 

A. Rifabutin

B. Erythromycin

C. Meropenem

D. Streptomycin

E. Levofloxacin


Answer:Meropenem

Explanation

Meropenem is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that belongs to the carbapenem class. It is resistant to β-lactamases, which are enzymes that can break down β-lactam antibiotics like penicillins and cephalosporins. Meropenem inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis in the bacterial cell wall, leading to cell wall disruption and bacterial death.

Additionally, it is not easily degraded by dehydropeptidase-1 in the renal tubules, which means it can be administered without the need for dose adjustments due to renal impairment.
Nosocomial pneumonia, which refers to pneumonia acquired in a healthcare setting, often requires broad-spectrum antibiotics like meropenem due to potential resistance of the causative pathogens to other antibiotics.

53. A patient presents with impaired twilight vision. What vitamin preparation should be prescribed to this patient? 

A. Cyanocobalamin

B. Pyridoxine hydrochloride

C. Retinol acetate

D. Ascorbic acid

E. Nicotinic acid 


Answer; Retinol acetate

Explanation

Impaired twilight vision is a symptom commonly associated with a deficiency in vitamin A. Vitamin A is essential for maintaining good vision, particularly in low light conditions. Retinol is a form of vitamin A that plays a crucial role in the function of the retina and is important for night vision.

54. A 44-year-old woman has arterial hypertension caused by a pheochromocytoma a tumor of the adrenal medulla. What group of antihypertensive drugs should be prescribed for this patient? 

A. α-blockers

B. Ganglionic blockers

C. Sympatholytics

D. Calcium antagonists

E. B-blockers 


Answer: α-blockers

Explanation

Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive amounts of catecholamines, including adrenaline and noradrenaline. These hormones can lead to significant increases in blood pressure and cause symptoms of hypertension.

α-blockers are a group of antihypertensive drugs that work by blocking the effects of adrenaline and noradrenaline on α-adrenergic receptors. By doing so, they help to relax blood vessels and reduce blood pressure. They are particularly effective in managing the hypertension associated with pheochromocytoma, as they counteract the vasoconstrictive effects of the excess catecholamines

55. The height of a 10-year-old child is 178 cm, while the child’s weight is 64 kg. What endocrine gland is dysfunctional in the child, causing this condition? 

A. Pituitary gland

B. Adrenal glands

C. Parathyroid gland

D. Gonads

E. Thyroid gland 


Answer;Pituitary gland

Explanation

In this scenario, the child’s height of 178 cm and weight of 64 kg at the age of 10 years are unusually high for their age. This suggests a condition known as gigantism, which is characterized by excessive growth due to overproduction of growth hormone (GH) during childhood, often caused by a tumor in the pituitary gland.

However, your statement about the pituitary gland being dysfunctional is not entirely correct. In the context of gigantism, the pituitary gland is indeed involved, but it’s not exactly “dysfunctional.” Rather, it’s producing an excess amount of growth hormone due to the presence of a tumor.

So, while the pituitary gland is implicated in this scenario, it’s more accurate to say that the child’s condition is likely due to a pituitary adenoma (tumor) causing overproduction of growth hormone, leading to gigantism.

56. A patient was prescribed a drug with methionine to maintain liver function. Synthesis of what substance is ensured in this case?

A. Phosphatidylcholine

B. Citrate

C. Phosphatidylserine

D. Lactate

E. Pyruvate


Answer: Phosphatidylcholine

Explanation

Methionine is an essential amino acid that plays a crucial role in various biochemical processes in the body, including the synthesis of phosphatidylcholine. Phosphatidylcholine is a major component of cell membranes, particularly in liver cells, and is essential for maintaining proper liver function. It also plays a role in lipid metabolism and is involved in transporting fats within the body.Your answer choice A. Phosphatidylch

57. A patient has an injury of radiocarpal joint. What bones of the proximal row of the wrist (except the pisiform bone) form this joint? 

A. Scaphoid, trapezoid, hamate

B. Trapezoid, hamate, lunate

C. Scaphoid, lunate, triquetral

D. –

E. Scaphoid, trapezoid, lunate 


Answer: Scaphoid, lunate, triquetral

Explanation

The radiocarpal joint, also known as the wrist joint, is formed by the distal end of the radius and the proximal row of carpal bones. The bones of the proximal row that form this joint are the scaphoid, lunate, and triquetral. These bones articulate with the radius to allow for flexion, extension, adduction, and abduction movements of the wrist.

58. A patient has an abscess in the left inguinal region. The patient developed complaints of general weakness, fever that in the evening reaches 38.5°C and normalizes in the morning, and painful red skin in the area of abscess localization. What type of temperature curve can be observed in this patient?

A. Febris acontinua

B. Febris hectica

C. a continua

D. Febris remittens

E. Febris recurrens 


Answer: Febris hectica 

Explanation

Febris hectica, also known as hectic fever, is a type of temperature curve characterized by fluctuating fever spikes with a relatively high amplitude. It’s often seen in conditions such as abscesses, tuberculosis, or other chronic inflammatory processes. The fever spikes tend to have a pattern where the temperature is higher in the evening and lower in the morning, and this pattern can vary significantly over the course of the day.

59. A group of alpinists, who were climbing to the atitude of 5000 meters above sea level without oxygen equipment, developed tachycardia, decreased blood pressure, and rapid breathing. What hypoxia developed in the mountain climbers? 

A. Hypoxemic hypoxia

B. Respiratory hypoxia

C. Circulatory hypoxia

D. Hemic hypoxia

E. Tissue hypoxia


Answer: Hypoxemic hypoxia

Explanation

Hypoxemic hypoxia, also known as hypoxia of the blood, occurs when there is a reduced partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) in the arterial blood. This can happen at high altitudes due to the decrease in atmospheric pressure and oxygen availability. In the scenario of climbing to 5000 meters without supplemental oxygen, the decreased atmospheric pressure at that altitude leads to reduced oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in the blood, which causes symptoms like tachycardia, decreased blood pressure, and rapid breathing.

60. A 56-year-old patient complains of an acute pain attack in the area of the right ankle joint. Objectively, the joint is hyperemic, edematous, and hot to the touch. The levels of uric acid in the blood are elevated. For the treatment of this pathology, the doctor prescribed a drug that inhibits xanthine oxidase. What drug is it? 

A. Theophylline

B. Allopurinol

C. Urolesan

D. Prednisolone

E. Diacarb (Acetazolamide)


Answer : Allopurinol

Explanation

Allopurinol is a medication commonly used to treat conditions like gout, which is characterized by elevated levels of uric acid in the blood. It works by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase, which is involved in the production of uric acid. By reducing the production of uric acid, allopurinol helps prevent the formation of uric acid crystals that can cause inflammation, pain, and other symptoms in joints, such as the acute pain attack described in the question

61. A 60-year-old woman has congestive heart failure with increased cardiac preload. What bioactive substance will be secreted by the heart in this case? 

A. Vasopressin

B. Gastric inhibitory peptide

C. Aldosterone

D. Atrial natriuretic peptide

E. Angiotensin II 


Answer: Atrial natriuretic peptide

Explanation

ANP is a hormone secreted by the heart in response to increased cardiac preload, which is often seen in conditions like congestive heart failure. ANP works to counteract the effects of increased preload by promoting vasodilation and increasing sodium and water excretion by the kidneys. This helps to reduce blood volume and relieve the strain on the heart.

62. A patient has been diagnosed with atrophy of masticatory muscles. This group of muscles is innervated by branches of the following cranial nerve:

A. Hypoglossal nerve

B. First branch of the trigeminal nerve

C. Motor branches of the VII cranial

nerve

D. Third branch of the trigeminal

nerve

E. Second branch of the trigeminal

nerve


Answer: Third branch of the trigeminal

nerve

Explanation

The masticatory muscles, including the temporalis, masseter, and medial pterygoid muscles, are innervated by the third branch of the trigeminal nerve, also known as the mandibular nerve. This nerve carries both sensory and motor fibers, supplying the muscles of mastication and transmitting sensory information from the lower jaw and parts of the face.

63. A patient has an attack of bronchospasm. What membrane cytoreceptors of bronchial smooth muscles should be stimulated to improve the patient’s condition?

A. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

B. Histamine H2 receptors

C. β-adrenergic receptors

D. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

E. α-adrenergic receptors 


Answer: β-adrenergic receptors

Explanation

Bronchospasm, which involves the constriction of the airways, can be relieved by stimulating β-adrenergic receptors. Activation of these receptors by drugs like β2-adrenergic agonists (e.g., albuterol) leads to bronchodilation, relaxing the smooth muscles of the bronchioles and improving airflow in the lungs.

64. The parents with normal hearing have two daughters and a son, who are congenitally deaf. Their other 5 children are healthy. What is the pattern of deafness inheritance in this case? 

A. Y-linked

B. Autosomal recessive

C. X-linked recessive

D. Autosomal dominant

E. X-linked dominant 


Answer: Autosomal recessive

Explanation

In this case, the parents are carriers of a recessive allele for deafness. Since they have two daughters and a son with congenital deafness while their other children are healthy, it suggests that both parents are carriers of the deafness gene (heterozygous) and that the deafness inheritance follows an autosomal recessive pattern.

65. A woman was diagnosed with Chlamydia-induced pneumonia. The doctor prescribed her antibiotic doxycycline. What type of pharmacotherapy is it? 

A. Symptomatic

B. Pathogenetic

C. Etiotropic

D. Preventive

E. Replacement 

Answer: Etiotropic

Explanation

Etiotropic pharmacotherapy refers to the treatment of a disease by targeting the underlying cause or etiology. In this case, the woman has Chlamydia-induced pneumonia, and the antibiotic doxycycline is specifically chosen to target and eliminate the Chlamydia bacteria responsible for the infection. This type of treatment directly addresses the cause of the disease.

66. Analysis of the patient’s ECG recorded in the I, II, and III standard leads shows that the P wave is positive in each one of them What does it indicate? 

A. Atrial depolarization rate

B. Mitral valve condition

C. Pumping function of the left side of

the heart

D. Direction of atrial depolarization

E. Ventricular depolarization rate 

Answer: Direction of atrial depolarization

Explanation

The P wave in an electrocardiogram (ECG) represents the atrial depolarization (contraction) of the heart. The fact that the P wave is positive in all standard leads (I, II, and III) indicates that the electrical depolarization is moving in a consistent direction across those leads. This suggests a normal sequence of atrial depolarization, which starts at the sinoatrial (SA) node and spreads through the atria.

67. A patient with a suspected systemic disease underwent a biopsy of an area of increased density and immobility in the skin. In the dermis, the study detected all types of connective tissue disorganization with a weak cellular reaction, gross sclerosis, and hyalinosis. What disease can be characterized by these pathological changes? 

A. Scleroderma

B. Systemic lupus erythematosus

C. Dermatofibroma

D. Polyarteritis nodosa

E. Psoriasi

Answer: Scleroderma

Explanation

The described pathological changes of increased density, immobility in the skin, connective tissue disorganization, sclerosis, and hyalinosis are characteristic of scleroderma (also known as systemic sclerosis). Scleroderma is a systemic autoimmune disorder that affects the connective tissues and can lead to skin hardening, joint stiffness, and damage to various internal organs.

68. A patient had her tooth extracted in a dental clinic. Stratified squamous epithelium regenerated two weeks later. What organelles took part in the restoration of the mucosa?

A. Centrosomes

B. Mitochondria

C. Postlysosomes

D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

E. Ribosomes

Answer: Ribosomes

Explanation

Ribosomes are cellular organelles responsible for protein synthesis. In the case of tissue regeneration, including the regeneration of stratified squamous epithelium after tooth extraction, protein synthesis is a crucial process. New proteins are needed for cell growth, division, and tissue repair. Ribosomes play a central role in translating the genetic information from mRNA into functional proteins..

69. What period of the malaria plasmodium life cycle coincides with the manifestation of clinical symptoms of malaria in a patient? 

A. When merozoites emerge from

destroyed erythrocytes

B. During gametocyte formation

erythrocytes

C. When merozoites invade

erythrocytes

D. When sporozoites enter the human

bloodstream

E. In the period of tissue schizogony 

Answer: When merozoites emerge from

destroyed erythrocytes

Explanation

In the life cycle of Plasmodium, the parasite responsible for malaria, the manifestation of clinical symptoms coincides with the release of merozoites from the destroyed red blood cells. This stage is associated with fever, chills, and other symptoms characteristic of malaria.

70. A patient has been diagnosed with psychosis. After two weeks of receiving pharmacotherapy, the patient’s condition improved. However, the patient soon developed rigidity, tremors, and hypokinesia. What drug causes these complications? 

A. Chlordiazepoxide

B. Sydnocarb (Mesocarb)

C. Imizin (Imipramine)

D. Diphenin (Phenytoin)

E. Aminazine (Chlorpromazine) 

Answer; Aminazine (Chlorpromazine) 

Explanation

Aminazine (also known as Chlorpromazine) is a typical antipsychotic medication used to treat various psychiatric disorders, including psychosis. However, it can also cause extrapyramidal side effects, which include rigidity, tremors, and hypokinesia (reduced voluntary movements). These side effects are often collectively referred to as parkinsonism or extrapyramidal symptoms and are related to the drug’s effects on dopamine receptors in the brain.

0% Complete